Important Instructions about JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA SELECTION
TEST (JNVST)
1. Centre for Examination
Each candidate
shall appear for the selection test at the examination centre allotted to him/her
as indicated on the Admit Card. No candidate is permitted to appear from any other
centre. No request for change of centre will be entertained. No candidate can
appear in the selection test without the proper Admit Card. The competent
authority for issuing the Admit Card is Principal, JNV.
2. Language of the Examination
The language/medium
of the examination for the candidate will be the medium through
which the
candidate is studying in Class-V. A candidate will be given a test booklet in
the language he/she has mentioned in the application form and admit card. It
must be ensured that Same Medium of Examination/Language is written in the
Application Form (Col.10) and Admit Card (Col.1). The test booklet is available
in the following languages:
1. Assamese 2. Bengali 3.
Bodo 4. English 5. Garo 6.
Gujarati
7. Hindi 8. Kannada 9. Khasi 10.
Malayalam 11. Manipuri
12. Marathi 13. Mizo 14. Oriya 15. Punjabi 16. Sindhi
(Arabic)
17. Sindhi (Devnagri) 18. Tamil 19. Telugu 20. Urdu 21. Nepali
3. Composition of the Test
The selection test will be of
two-hour duration and will have 3 sections with only objective type questions.
There are 100 questions in all of 100 marks. Each question carries one mark:
Type of Test Number
of Questions Marks Duration
Mental ability
Test 50 50
60 Minutes
Arithmetic Test 25 25
30 Minutes
Language Test 25 25 30 Minutes
Total 100 100
2 Hours
A single test booklet comprising
of the 3 sections will be given to each candidate.
4. Method of Recording
Answers
a) A separate
Answer sheet will be provided. Candidates are required to indicate their answers
at an appropriate place on the answer sheet itself. The Answer sheet will be of
intelligence Character Recognition (ICR)/Optical Character Recognition (OCR)
Sheet. A copy of specimen Answer Sheet is enclosed.
b) Only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen is to be used to write on the answer
sheet.
Candidates should bring their own ballpoint pens. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
c) For each
question, there are four probable answers, out of which only one is correct. The candidate is required to select correct
answer and indicate correct corresponding number (1, 2, 3, 4) given against the
probable answers on the answer sheet. Any other mode such as
marking ( Ö ) OR (a, b, c, d) OR (A, B,C, D) OR (BÉE, JÉ, MÉ, PÉ) etc. to indicate the answers on the answer sheet
will not be accepted.
d) No change in
the answer once written is allowed. Overwriting, cutting and erasing on the Answer
Sheet is also not allowed.
e) One mark will
be given for every correct answer.
f) No negative marking will be
done.
5. About Instruction and
Example
a) The candidate
must carefully read the instructions given on the cover page of the test booklet
as well as those for each test/section before attempting the questions.
b) Candidates
are advised to confirm that the test booklet received by them is of the language
opted for the test. In case test booklet of correct language opted for is not provided,
the candidate should get it changed before start of the examination. It is the responsibility
of the candidate to obtain the test booklet of his choice as opted in the application
form. No representation in this regard will be entertained after the examination
is over.
c) About one
minute may be needed to answer each question. Therefore, the candidate should
not spend too much of time on a particular question. If a question is found difficult
to answer he/she may leave it and move on to the next one. This will help to save
time. Once the candidate completes all the questions in a test, he/she may try
those questions, which he/she had left in the first attempt.
d) The total
time would be two hours without any break.
e) Securing
qualifying marks in each of the three tests is essential. Candidates are
advised not to spend more time on each section of test than suggested, although
they are free to adjust the total time, as they like.
f) There will be
a bell after every 30 minutes.
(1) No candidate
will be allowed to appear in the selection test without proper Admit Card.
(2) No candidate
will be allowed to enter the examination hall/ room after 30 minutes of the
commencement of the selection test.
(3) No candidate
will be allowed to leave the examination hall / room before completion of 60
minutes after commencement of the test.
6. Nature of the Test
Section-1 Mental Ability Test (MAT)
This is non –
verbal test. Questions are based on figures and diagrams only. Questions are
meant to assess general mental functioning of the candidates. The section is
divided into ten paras having 5 questions each.
PART-I
( ODD-MAN OUT)
Directions:
In questions 1
to 5, four figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 have been given in each question. Of these
four figures,
three figures are similar in some way and one figure is different. Select the
figure which is different.
PART-
II ( FIGURE MATCHING)
Directions:
In questions 6
to 10, a problem figure is given on the left side and four answer figures
marked 1, 2, 3,
4 are given on the right side. Select the answer figure which is exactly the
same as the
problem figure.
PART-
III ( PATTERN COMPLETION)
Directions:
In questions 11
to 15 there is a problem figure on the left hand side, a part of which is missing.
Observe the answer figures 1, 2, 3, 4 on the right hand side and find out the answer
figure which without changing the direction, fits in the missing part of the problem
figure in order to complete the pattern in the problem figure.
PART-
IV ( FIGURE SERIES COMPLETION)
Directions:
In questions 16
to 20, there are three problem figures on the left hand side and the space
for the fourth
figure is left blank. The problem figures are in a series. Find out one figure
from among the
answer figures given on the right hand side, which occupies the blank space for
the fourth figure on the left hand side and completes the series.
PART
- V ( ANALOGY)
Directions:
In questions 21
to 25, there are two sets of two problem figures each. The second set has
a mark of
interrogation (?). There exists a relationship between the first two problem figures.
Similar relationship should exist between the third and fourth problem figure. Select
one of the answer figure which replaces the mark of interrogation.
PART
- VI {Geometrical Figure Completion (Triangle, Square, Circle)}
Directions:
In questions 26
to 30 one part of a square is on the left hand side as question figure and
the other one is
among the four answer figures 1, 2, 3, 4 given on the right hand side. Find out
the figure that completes the square.
PART
– VII (MIRROR IMAGING)
Directions:
In questions 31
to 35 there is a problem figure on the left side and four answer figures marked
1, 2, 3, 4 are given on the right side. Select the answer figure which is
exactly the
mirror image of
the problem figure when the mirror is held at X Y.
PART
- VIII (PUNCHED HOLD PATTERN - Folding/Unfolding)
Directions:
In question 36
to 40 a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in problem figures
on the left side
and four answer figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 are given on right side. Select
the answer
figure which indicates how the paper will appear when opened (unfolded).
PART
- IX (SPACE VISUALISATION)
Directions:
In questions 41
to 45 a problem figure is given on the left side and four answer figures, marked
1, 2, 3, 4 are given on the right side. Select the answer figure which can be formed
from the cut-off pieces given in the problem figure.
PART
–X (EMBEDDED FIGURE)
Directions:
In questions 46
to 50 a problem figure is given on the left side and four answer figures, marked
1, 2, 3, 4 are given on the right side. Select the answer figure in which the problem
figure is hidden/ embedded.
Section 2: Arithmetic Test
The main purpose
of this test is to measure candidate's basic competencies in Arithmetic. All
the Twenty-five questions of this test will be based on the following 15 topics
1. Number and
numeric system.
2. Four
fundamental operations on whole number.
3. Fractional
number and four fundamental operations on them.
4. Factors and
multiple including their properties.
5. LCM and HCF
of numbers.
6. Decimals and
fundamental operations on them.
7. Conversion of
fractions to decimals and vice-versa.
8. Applications
of number in measure length, mass, capacity, time, money etc
9. Distance,
time and speed.
10.
Approximation of expressions.
11.
Simplification of Numerical Expressions,
12. Percentage
and its applications.
13. Profit and
loss.
14. Simple
interest.
15. Perimeter,
area and volume.
Note:- Emphasis
will be more on testing of understanding and Application of the concepts and
skills involved. In order to provide some guidance to the candidates on the
types of questions that are expected in Arithmetic lest, some examples are given
below-
Example
- 1 (Test of Understanding):
What is the
prime factorization of 1000?
1. 10x10x10
2. 2x5x5x10
3. 2 x 2 x 2 x5 x 5
4. 2 x 2x 2 x 5 x5 x 5
A factorization
of a number is said to be a prime factorization if (i) the product of
the factors
(taking a factor as many times as it occurs) is equal to the given number, and
(ii) each factor is a prime number. Here only serial number 4 satisfies both
the requirements. As such, serial number 4 is the correct answer.
Example
2 (Test of Understanding):
What is the
average of first four odd
numbers?
a. 2.5
b. 4
c. 5
d. 16
The first four
odd numbers are 1.3.5 and 7. Their average (l+3+5+7)/4. As such, serial number
2 is the correct answer.
Example
3 (Test of Application):
A 1 km. long
goods train is running at speed of I km. per 3 minutes, the time taken by this
train to pass through 2 kms. Long tunnel is:
1. 1 minute
2. 3 minute
3. 6 minute
4. 9 minute
The tunnel is 2
km. long and the train is I km. in length, the train will have to cover a total
distance of 3 km. in order to
pass through the tunnel running at a speed of 1 km, per 3 minutes, the train
will take 9 minutes to pass through ibis tunnel and that is the correct answer.
As such, serial number 4 is the correct answer.
Section 3: Language Test.
The main purpose
of this test is to assess reading comprehension of the candidates. The test
consists of three passages. Each passage is followed by 5 questions. Candidates
shall read each passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. In
addition, there will be 10 questions to test grammar and writing skills of
candidates.
